F.A.A. Airframe Master Multiple Choice Exam

1. The I beam wooden spar is routed to:

a) increase strength.
b) obtain uniform strength.
c) reduce weight.
2. The cantilever wing uses:

a) external struts or wire bracing.
b) no external bracing.
c) the skin to carry most of the load to the wing butt.
3. In cases of elongated boltholes in a wood spar or cracks in the vicinity of boltholes:

a) it is permissible to ream the hole, plug with hardwood, and redrill.
b) the spar may be reinforced by using hardwood reinforcing plates.
c) a new section of spar should be spliced in or the spar replaced entirely.
4. The strength of a well designed and properly prepared wood splice joint is provided by the:

a) bearing surface of the wood fibers.
b) glue.
c) reinforcement plates.
5. (1) Machine sewn seams in aircraft covering fabrics may be of the folded fell or French fell types.
(2) A plain lapped seam is never permissible.
Regarding the above statements:

a) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
b) only No. 1 is true.
c) only No. 2 is true.
6. When dope-proofing the parts of the aircraft structure that come in contact with doped fabric, which of the following provide an acceptable protective coating?
1. Aluminum foil.
2. Resin impregnated cloth tape.
3. Any one-part type metal primer.
4. Cellulose tape.

a) 1 and 2.
b) 1 and 4.
c) 3 and 4.
7. The strength classification of fabrics used in aircraft covering is based on:

a) bearing strength.
b) shear strength.
c) tensile strength.
8. Finishing tape (surface tape) is used for what purpose?

a) To help prevent 'ripple formation' in covering fabric.
b) To provide additional anti-tear resistance under reinforcement tape.
c) To provide additional wear resistance over the edges of fabric forming structures.
9. The determining factor(s) for the selection of the correct weight of textile fabric to be used in covering any type of aircraft is the:

a) maximum wing loading.
b) speed of the aircraft.
c) speed of the aircraft and the maximum wing loading.
10. Before applying a protective coating to any unpainted clean aluminum, you should:

a) wipe the surface with avgas or kerosene.
b) remove any conversion coating film.
c) avoid touching the surface with bare hands.
11. If registration numbers are to be applied to an aircraft with a letter height of 12 inches, what is the minimum space required for the registration mark N1683C?
2/3 x height = character width.
1/6 x height = width for 1.
1/4 x 2/3 height = spacing.
1/6 x height = stroke or line width.

a) 52 inches.
b) 48 inches.
c) 57 inches.
12. Which defect in aircraft finishes may be caused by adverse humidity, drafts, or sudden changes in temperature?

a) Orange peel.
b) Blushing.
c) Pinholes.
13. A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. The curvature of the bend is referred to as the:

a) bend allowance.
b) neutral line.
c) bend radius.
14. The purpose of a joggle is to:

a) allow clearance for a sheet or an extrusion.
b) increase obstruction for a sheet or an extrusion.
c) decrease the weight of the part and still retain the necessary strength.
15. (Refer to Airframe figure 6.) Determine the dimensions of A, B, and C in the flat layout.
Setback = .252
Bend allowance = .345

a) A = .748; B = 2.252; C = 2.004.
b) A = .748; B = 1.496; C = 1.248.
c) A = 1.252; B = 2.504; C = 1.752.
16. (Refer to Airframe figure 4.) The length of flat A is:

a) 3.750 inches.
b) 3.875 inches.
c) 3.937 inches.
17. You can distinguish between aluminum and aluminum alloy by:

a) filing the metal.
b) testing with an acetic acid solution.
c) testing with a 10 percent solution of caustic soda.
18. One of the best ways to assure that a properly prepared batch of matrix resin has been achieved is to:

a) perform a chemical composition analysis.
b) have mixed enough for a test sample.
c) test the viscosity of the resin immediately after mixing.
19. Cabin upholstery materials installed in current standard category airplanes must:

a) be fireproof.
b) be at least flame resistant.
c) meet the requirements prescribed in Part 43.
20. If no scratches are visible after transparent plastic enclosure materials have been cleaned, their surfaces should be:

a) polished with rubbing compound applied with a damp cloth.
b) buffed with a clean, soft, dry cloth.
c) covered with a thin coat of wax.
21. When installing transparent plastic enclosures which are retained by bolts extending through the plastic material and self-locking nuts, the nuts should be:

a) tightened to a firm fit, plus one full turn.
b) tightened to a firm fit, then backed off one full turn.
c) tightened to a firm fit.
22. Which part(s) of a semi monocoque fuselage prevent(s) tension and compression from bending the fuselage?

a) The fuselage covering.
b) Longerons and stringers.
c) Bulkheads and skin.
23. Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine supports, etc., which have been built up from sheet metal, are normally:

a) repairable, using approved methods.
b) repairable, except when subjected to compressive loads.
c) not repairable, but must be replaced when damaged or deteriorated.
24. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for soft metals?

a) 118°.
b) 90°.
c) 65°.
25. Shallow scratches in sheet metal may be repaired by:

a) burnishing.
b) buffing.
c) stop drilling.
26. A category of plastic material that is capable of softening or flowing when reheated is described as a:

a) thermoplastic.
b) thermocure.
c) thermoset.
27. Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb construction are used on modern aircraft because this type of construction:

a) is lighter than single sheet skin of the same strength and is more corrosion resistant.
b) may be repaired by gluing replacement skin to the inner core material with thermoplastic resin.
c) has a high strength to weight ratio.
28. What is the material layer used within the vacuum bag pressure system to absorb excess resin during curing called?

a) Bleeder.
b) Breather.
c) Release.
29. A potted compound repair on honeycomb can usually be made on damages less than:

a) 4 inches in diameter.
b) 2 inches in diameter.
c) 1 inch in diameter.
30. Proper pre-preg composite lay-up curing is generally accomplished by:
1. applying external heat.
2. room temperature exposure.
3. adding a catalyst or curing agent to the resin.
4. applying pressure.

a) 2 and 3.
b) 1 and 4.
c) 1, 3, and 4.
31. When repairing puncture type damage of a metal faced laminated honeycomb panel, the edges of the doubler should be tapered to:

a) two times the thickness of the metal.
b) 100 times the thickness of the metal.
c) whatever is desired for a neat, clean appearance.
32. When making repairs to fiberglass, cleaning of the area to be repaired is essential for a good bond. The final cleaning should be made using:

a) MEK (methyl ethyl ketone).
b) soap, water, and a scrub brush.
c) a thixotropic agent.
33. Fiberglass laminate damage not exceeding the first layer or ply can be repaired by:

a) filling with a putty consisting of a compatible resin and clean, short glass fibers.
b) sanding the damaged area until aerodynamic smoothness is obtained.
c) trimming the rough edges and sealing with paint.
34. Fiberglass laminate damage that extends completely through one facing and into the core:

a) cannot be repaired.
b) requires the replacement of the damaged core and facing.
c) can be repaired by using a typical metal facing patch.
35. Which of these methods may be used to inspect fiberglass/honeycomb structures for entrapped
1. Acoustic emission monitoring.
2. X-ray.
3. Backlighting.

a) 1 and 2.
b) 1 and 3.
c) 2 and 3.
36. Which rivets should be selected to join two sheets of .032-inch aluminum?

a) MS20425D-4-3.
b) MS20470AD-4-4.
c) MS20455DD-5-3.
37. Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to finish a drilled hole to the correct size?

a) Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when enlarging the hole and in the opposite direction to remove from the hole.
b) Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction.
c) Apply considerable pressure on the reamer when starting the cut and reduce the pressure when finishing the cut.
38. A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of 0.0625-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet holes are drilled for 1/8-inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be used will be:

a) 5/32 inch.
b) 3/16 inch.
c) 5/16 inch.
39. (Refer to Airframe figure 1.) Which of the rivets shown will accurately fit the conical depression made by a 100° countersink?

a) 1.
b) 2.
c) 3.
40. Under certain conditions, type A rivets are not used because of their:

a) low strength characteristics.
b) high alloy content.
c) tendency toward embrittlement when subjected to vibration.
41. (Refer to Airframe figure 2.) Select the preferred drawing for proper countersinking.

a) All are acceptable.
b) 2.
c) 1.
42. Heat treated rivets in the D and DD series that are not driven within the prescribed time after heat treatment or removal from refrigeration:

a) must be reheat treated before use.
b) must be discarded.
c) may be returned to refrigeration and used later without reheat treatment.
43. Joggles in removed rivet shanks would indicate partial:

a) bearing failure.
b) torsion failure.
c) shear failure.
44. A main difference between Lockbolt/ Huckbolt tension and shear fasteners (other than their application) is in the:

a) number of locking collar grooves.
b) shape of the head.
c) method of installation.
45. One of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type fasteners over earlier generations is that:

a) they can be removed and reused again.
b) the squeezed on collar installation provides a more secure, tighter fit.
c) they can be installed with ordinary hand tools.
46. Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 rivets) should not be used in composite structures primarily because of the:

a) possibility of causing delamination.
b) increased possibility of fretting corrosion in the fastener.
c) difficulty in forming a proper shop head.
47. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud length is measured in:

a) hundredths of an inch.
b) tenths of an inch.
c) sixteenths of an inch.
48. The general rule for finding the proper rivet diameter is:

a) three times the thickness of the materials to be joined.
b) two times the rivet length.
c) three times the thickness of the thickest sheet.
49. What method of repair is recommended for a steel tube longeron dented at a cluster?

a) Welded split sleeve.
b) Welded outer sleeve.
c) Welded patch plate.
50. The oxyacetylene flame used for aluminum welding should:

a) be neutral and soft.
b) be slightly oxidizing.
c) contain an excess of acetylene and leave the tip at a relatively low speed.
51. A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used effectively until after the working face has been:

a) fluxed.
b) polished.
c) tinned.
52. Oxygen and acetylene cylinders are made of:

a) seamless aluminum.
b) steel.
c) bronze.
53. Annealing of aluminum:

a) increases the tensile strength.
b) makes the material brittle.
c) removes stresses caused by forming.
54. Edge notching is generally recommended in butt welding above a certain thickness of aluminum because it:

a) helps hold the metal in alignment during welding.
b) aids in the removal or penetration of oxides on the metal surface.
c) aids in getting full penetration of the metal and prevents local distortion.
55. Why are aluminum plates 1/4 inch or more thick usually preheated before welding?

a) Reduces internal stresses and assures more complete penetration.
b) Reduces welding time.
c) Prevents corrosion and ensures proper distribution of flux.
56. Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or metals are hot. It is important, therefore, when welding aluminum to use a:

a) solvent.
b) filler.
c) flux.
57. When a butt welded joint is visually inspected for penetration:

a) the penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base metal.
b) the penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal.
c) look for evidence of excessive heat in the form of a very high bead.
58. Which statement best describes magnesium welding?

a) Magnesium can be welded to other metals.
b) Filler rod should be nickel steel.
c) Filler rod should be the same composition as base metal.
59. What nondestructive checking method is normally used to ensure that the correct amount of swaging has taken place when installing swaged-type terminals on aircraft control cable?

a) Measure the finished length of the terminal barrel and compare with the beginning length.
b) Use a terminal gauge to check the diameter of the swaged portion of the terminal.
c) Check the surface of the swaged portion of the terminal for small cracks which indicate incomplete swaging.
60. If all instructions issued by the swaging tool manufacturer are followed when swaging a cable terminal, the resultant swaged terminal strength should be:

a) the full rated strength of the cable.
b) 80 percent of the full rated strength of the cable.
c) 70 percent of the full rated strength of the cable.
61. When used in close proximity to magnetic compasses, cotter pins are made of what material?

a) Corrosion resisting steel.
b) Anodized aluminum alloy.
c) Cadmium plated low carbon steel.
62. Fairleads should never deflect the alignment of a cable more than:

a) 12°.
b) 8°.
c) 3°.
63. If control cables are adjusted properly and the control surfaces tend to vibrate, the probable cause is:

a) worn attachment fittings.
b) oil can effects on the control surfaces.
c) excessive cable tension.
64. A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all metal aircraft is used primarily to:

a) increase the cable tension in cold weather.
b) provide a means of changing cable tension in flight.
c) retain a set tension.
65. What is the smallest size cable that may be used in aircraft primary control systems?

a) 1/4 inch.
b) 5/16 inch.
c) 1/8 inch.
66. The universal propeller protractor can be used to measure:

a) propeller track.
b) aspect ratio of a wing.
c) degrees of flap travel.
67. The correct dihedral angle can be determined by:

a) measuring the angular setting of each wing at the rear spar with a bubble protractor.
b) placing a straightedge and bubble protractor across the spars while the airplane is in flying position.
c) using a dihedral board and bubble level along the front spar of each wing.
68. Where would you find precise information to perform a symmetry alignment check for a particular aircraft?

a) Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data Sheet.
b) Manufacturer's service bulletins.
c) Aircraft service or maintenance manual.
69. Where is fuselage station No. 137 located?

a) 137 centimeters aft of the nose or fixed reference line.
b) 137 inches aft of the zero or fixed reference line.
c) Aft of the engine.
70. Why is it generally necessary to jack an aircraft indoors for weighing?

a) So aircraft may be placed in a level position.
b) So that air currents do not destabilize the scales.
c) So weighing scales may be calibrated to 0 pounds.
71. An airplane's center of lift is usually located aft of its center of gravity:

a) so that the airplane will have a tail heavy tendency.
b) so that the airplane will have a nose heavy tendency.
c) to improve stability about the longitudinal axis.
72. An airplane that has a tendency to gradually increase a pitching moment that has been set into motion has:

a) poor longitudinal stability.
b) good lateral stability.
c) poor lateral stability.
73. The angle of incidence of an airplane at rest:

a) affects the dihedral of the wings in flight.
b) is the same as the angle between the relative wind and the chord of the wing.
c) does not change when in flight.
74. The primary purpose of stall strips is to:

a) provide added lift at slow speeds.
b) stall the inboard portion of the wings first.
c) provide added lift at high angles of attack.
75. The chord of a wing is measured from:

a) wingtip to wingtip.
b) wing root to the wingtip.
c) leading edge to trailing edge.
76. What physical factors are involved in the aspect ratio of airplane wings?

a) Thickness and chord.
b) Span and chord.
c) Dihedral and angle of attack.
77. Rigging and alignment checks should not be undertaken in the open; however, if this cannot be avoided, the aircraft should be positioned:

a) obliquely into the wind.
b) facing any direction since it makes no difference if the wind is steady (not gusting).
c) with the nose into the wind.
78. What is the purpose of the free wheeling unit in a helicopter drive system?

a) It disconnects the rotor whenever the engine stops or slows below the equivalent of rotor RPM.
b) It releases the rotor brake for starting.
c) It relieves bending stress on the rotor blades during starting.
79. Which statement is correct concerning torque effect on helicopters?

a) Torque direction is the same as rotor blade rotation.
b) As horsepower decreases, torque increases.
c) Torque direction is the opposite of rotor blade rotation.
80. One purpose of the freewheeling unit required between the engine and the helicopter transmission is to:

a) automatically disengage the rotor from the engine in case of an engine failure.
b) disconnect the rotor from the engine to relieve the starter load.
c) permit practice of autorotation landings.
81. If a single rotor helicopter is in forward horizontal flight, the angle of attack of the advancing blade is:

a) more than the retreating blade.
b) equal to the retreating blade.
c) less than the retreating blade.
82. A helicopter in forward flight, cruise configuration, changes direction by:

a) varying the pitch of the main rotor blades.
b) changing rotor RPM.
c) tilting the main rotor disk in the desired direction.
83. The auxiliary (tail) rotor of a helicopter permits the pilot to compensate for and/or accomplish which of the following?

a) Attitude and airspeed.
b) Lateral and yaw position.
c) Torque and directional control.
84. Which statement is correct regarding an aircraft that is found to be unairworthy after an annual inspection, due to an item requiring a major repair (assuming approved data is used to accomplish the repair)?

a) An appropriately rated mechanic may accomplish the repair, and an IA may approve the aircraft for return to service.
b) An appropriately rated mechanic or repair station may repair the defect and approve the aircraft for return to service.
c) Only the person who performed the annual inspection may approve the aircraft for return to service, after the major repair.
85. Large airplanes and turbine-powered multiengine airplanes operated under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules, must be inspected:

a) in accordance with an inspection program authorized under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, Subpart E.
b) in accordance with a continuous airworthiness maintenance program (camp program) authorized under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, Subpart E.
c) in accordance with the progressive inspection requirements of Federal Aviation Regulation Section 91.409(d).
86. How can it be determined that all air has been purged from a master cylinder brake system?

a) By operating a hydraulic unit and watching the system pressure gauge for smooth, full scale deflection.
b) By noting whether the brake is firm or spongy.
c) By noting the amount of fluid return to the master cylinder upon brake release.
87. What is one effect a restricted compensator port of a master cylinder will have on a brake system?

a) The brakes will operate normally.
b) The reservoir will be filled by reverse flow.
c) The restriction will cause slow release of the brakes.
88. What would be the effect if the piston return spring broke in a brake master cylinder?

a) The brakes would become spongy.
b) The brake travel would become excessive.
c) The brakes would drag.
89. A pilot reports the right brake on an aircraft is spongy when the brake pedal is depressed in a normal manner. The probable cause is:

a) the hydraulic master cylinder piston is sticking.
b) air in the brake hydraulic system.
c) the hydraulic master cylinder piston return spring is weak.
90. The purpose of an orifice check valve is to:

a) relieve pressure to a sensitive component.
b) restrict flow in one direction and allow free flow in the other.
c) relieve pressure in one direction and prevent flow in the other direction.
91. A special bolt in a landing gear attachment requires a torque value of 440 inch-pounds. How many foot-pounds are required?

a) 36.8.
b) 38.
c) 36.6
92. An O ring intended for use in a hydraulic system using MIL-H-5606 (mineral base) fluid will be marked with:

a) a blue stripe or dot.
b) one or more white dots.
c) a white and yellow stripe.
93. A landing gear position and warning system will provide a warning in the cockpit when the throttle is:

a) retarded and gear is not down and locked.
b) advanced and gear is down and locked.
c) retarded and gear is down and locked.
94. What should be checked when a shock strut bottoms during a landing?

a) Air pressure.
b) Packing seals for correct installation.
c) Fluid level.
95. What is the function of a cam incorporated in a nose gear shock strut?

a) Provides an internal shimmy damper.
b) Straightens the nosewheel.
c) Provides steering of aircraft during ground operation.
96. The purpose of a sequence valve in a hydraulic retractable landing gear system is to:

a) prevent heavy landing gear from falling too rapidly upon extension.
b) provide a means of disconnecting the normal source of hydraulic power and connecting the emergency source of power.
c) ensure operation of the landing gear and gear doors in the proper order.
97. Aircraft tire pressure should be checked:

a) using only a push on stick-type gauge having 1-pound increments.
b) at least once a week or more often.
c) as soon as possible after each flight.
98. Overinflated aircraft tires may cause damage to the:

a) brake linings.
b) wheel hub.
c) wheel flange.
99. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheels will:

a) indicate tire tread separation.
b) prevent overinflation.
c) melt at a specified elevated temperature.
100. The primary purpose for balancing aircraft wheel assemblies is to:

a) prevent heavy spots and reduce vibration.
b) distribute the aircraft weight properly.
c) reduce excessive wear and turbulence.
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