Airframe Master Multiple Choice Exam

1. If two actuating cylinders which have the same cross sectional area but different lengths of stroke are connected to the same source of hydraulic pressure, they will exert:

a) different amounts of force but will move at the same rate of speed.
b) equal amounts of force but will move at different rates of speed.
c) equal amounts of force and will move at the same rate of speed.
2. Bonding connections should be tested for:

a) resistance value.
b) reactance.
c) amperage value.
3. How much clearance from the seat bottom is required when installing radio equipment under a seat?

a) 3 inches with the seat unoccupied.
b) No set minimum as long as the equipment receives adequate cooling and damage protection.
c) 1 inch with the seat occupied and subjected to maximum downward seat spring deflection.
4. When a butt welded joint is visually inspected for penetration:

a) the penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal.
b) look for evidence of excessive heat in the form of a very high bead.
c) the penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base metal.
5. If a high pressure oxygen cylinder is to be installed in an airplane, it must meet the specifications of the:

a) Department of Transportation.
b) aircraft manufacturer or the cylinder manufacturer.
c) National Transportation Safety Board or the Standards of Compressed Gas Cylinders.
6. In troubleshooting an electrical circuit, if an ohmmeter is properly connected across a circuit component and some value of resistance is read:

a) either the component or the circuit is shorted.
b) the component has continuity and is not open.
c) the component has continuity and is open.
7. Which of the following may be used for the repair of fuel leaks on most integral fuel tanks?

a) Welding and resealing.
b) Riveting and resealing.
c) Brazing and resealing.
8. Where electric cables must pass through holes in bulkheads, formers, ribs, firewalls, etc.,
the wires should be protected from chafing by:

a) wrapping with plastic.
b) using a suitable grommet.
c) wrapping with electrical tape.
9. Fiberglass laminate damage that extends completely through one facing and into the core:

a) cannot be repaired.
b) requires the replacement of the damaged core and facing.
c) can be repaired by using a typical metal facing patch.
10. The pressure source for power brakes is:

a) the main hydraulic system.
b) a master cylinder.
c) the power brake reservoir.
11. In an autopilot, which signal nullifies the input signal to the ailerons?

a) Followup signal.
b) Course signal.
c) Displacement signal.
12. Fuel boost pumps are operated:

a) automatically from fuel pressure.
b) to provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine.
c) primarily for fuel transfer.
13. The general rule for finding the proper rivet diameter is:

a) three times the thickness of the materials to be joined.
b) three times the thickness of the thickest sheet.
c) two times the rivet length.
14. What is the purpose of a float operated transmitter installed in a fuel tank?

a) It sends an electric signal to the fuel quantity indicator.
b) It senses the total amount of fuel density.
c) It senses the dielectric qualities of fuel and air in the tank.
15. A hydraulic system operational check during ground runup of an aircraft indicates that the wing flaps cannot be lowered using the main hydraulic system, but can be lowered by using the emergency hand pump. Which is the most likely cause?

a) The flap selector valve has a severe internal leak.
b) The pressure accumulator is not supplying pressure to the system.
c) The fluid level in the reservoir is low.
16. How can it be determined that all air has been purged from a master cylinder brake system?

a) By noting whether the brake is firm or spongy.
b) By noting the amount of fluid return to the master cylinder upon brake release.
c) By operating a hydraulic unit and watching the system pressure gauge for smooth, full scale deflection.
17. The evacuation of a vapor-cycle cooling system removes any water that may be present by:

a) raising the boiling point of the water and drawing out the vapor.
b) drawing out the liquid.
c) lowering the boiling point of the water and drawing out the vapor.
18. Which characteristics apply to aircraft hydraulic systems?
1. Minimum maintenance requirements.
2. Lightweight.
3. About 80 percent operating efficiency (20 percent loss due to fluid friction).
4. Simple to inspect.

a) 1, 3, 4.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4.
c) 1, 2, 4.
19. Two types of hydraulic fluids currently being used in civil aircraft are:

a) mixed mineral base and phosphate ester base.
b) mineral base, and phosphate ester base.
c) petroleum base and mixed mineral base.
20. Aircraft instrument panels are generally shock mounted to absorb:

a) all vibration.
b) low frequency, high amplitude shocks.
c) high frequency, high amplitude shocks.
21. (1) When servicing aircraft hydraulic systems, use the type fluid specified in the aircraft manufacturer's maintenance manual or on the instruction plate affixed to the reservoir or unit.
(2) Hydraulic fluids for aircraft are dyed a specific color for each type of fluid.
Regarding the above statements,

a) only No. 2 is true.
b) only No. 1 is true.
c) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
22. A radar altimeter determines altitude by:

a) transmitting a signal and receiving back a reflected signal.
b) means of transponder interrogation.
c) receiving signals transmitted from ground radar stations.
23. The lubber line on a directional gyro is used to:

a) represent the wings of the aircraft.
b) align the instrument glass in the case.
c) represent the nose of the aircraft.
24. On some cabin pressurization systems, pressurization on the ground is restricted by the:

a) main landing gear operated switch.
b) cabin pressure regulator.
c) negative pressure-relief valve.
25. What would be the effect if the piston return spring broke in a brake master cylinder?

a) The brake travel would become excessive.
b) The brakes would become spongy.
c) The brakes would drag.
26. What is ventilating air used for on a combustion heater?

a) Provides air required to support the flame.
b) Carries heat to the places where needed.
c) Provides combustion air for ground blower.
27. What component of an autopilot system applies torque to the control surfaces of an aircraft?

a) Controller.
b) Servo.
c) Gyro.
28. A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of 0.0625-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet holes are drilled for 1/8-inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be used will be:

a) 5/16 inch.
b) 5/32 inch.
c) 3/16 inch.
29. A pressurization controller uses:

a) barometric pressure, cabin altitude, and cabin rate of change.
b) bleed air pressure, outside air temperature, and cabin rate of climb.
c) cabin rate of climb, bleed air volume, and cabin pressure.
30. A certain switch is described as a single pole, double throw switch (SPDT). The throw of a switch indicates the number of:

a) circuits each pole can complete through the switch.
b) terminals at which current can enter or leave the switch.
c) places at which the operating device (toggle, plunger, etc.) will come to rest and at the same
time open or close a circuit.
31. f it is necessary to use an electrical connector where it may be exposed to moisture, the mechanic should:

a) coat the connector with grease.
b) use a special moisture proof type.
c) spray the connector with varnish or zinc chromate.
32. Why are aluminum plates 1/4 inch or more thick usually preheated before welding?

a) Reduces welding time.
b) Prevents corrosion and ensures proper distribution of flux.
c) Reduces internal stresses and assures more complete penetration.
33. When an empty shock strut is filled with fluid, care should be taken to extend and compress the strut completely at least two times to:

a) ensure proper packing ring seating and removal of air bubbles.
b) force out any excess fluid.
c) thoroughly lubricate the piston rod.
34. How are generators rated?

a) Watts at rated voltage.
b) The impedance at rated voltage.
c) Amperes at rated voltage.
35. Heat exchanger cooling units are required in some aircraft hydraulic systems because of:

a) the high heat generated from braking.
b) high pressures and high rates of fluid flow.
c) fluid flammability.
36. When performing the static system leakage check required by Section 91.411, the technician utilizes:

a) negative pressure.
b) positive pressure.
c) static pressure.
37. Hydraulic system thermal relief valves are set to open at a:

a) lower pressure than the system relief valve.
b) higher pressure than the system relief valve.
c) lower pressure than the system pressure regulator.
38. Aircraft which operate only ac generators (alternators) as a primary source of electrical power normally provide current suitable for battery charging through the use of

a) an inverter and a voltage dropping resistor.
b) a dynamotor with a half wave dc output.
c) a stepdown transformer and a rectifier.
39. The preferred location of an ELT is:

a) as far aft as possible.
b) as far aft as possible, but forward of the vertical fin.
c) where it is readily accessible to the pilot or a member of the flightcrew while the aircraft is in flight.
40. A probe or a series of probes is used in what kind of fuel quantity indicating system?

a) Capacitor.
b) Selsyn.
c) Synchro.
41. If control cables are adjusted properly and the control surfaces tend to vibrate, the probable cause is:

a) oil can effects on the control surfaces.
b) worn attachment fittings.
c) excessive cable tension.
42. Which statement is true with respect to an aircraft equipped with hydraulically operated multiple disk type brake assemblies?

a) There are no minimum or maximum disk clearance checks required due to the use of self compensating cylinder assemblies.
b) No parking brake provisions are possible for this type of brake assembly.
c) Do not set parking brake when brakes are hot.
43. The primary purpose for balancing aircraft wheel assemblies is to:

a) prevent heavy spots and reduce vibration.
b) distribute the aircraft weight properly.
c) reduce excessive wear and turbulence.
44. The purpose of a joggle is to:

a) increase obstruction for a sheet or an extrusion.
b) decrease the weight of the part and still retain the necessary strength.
c) allow clearance for a sheet or an extrusion.
45. On modern large aircraft, what electronic device typically monitors flight parameters and performs autopilot functions?

a) Control/display unit.
b) Transponder.
c) Flight management computer.
46. What physical factors are involved in the aspect ratio of airplane wings?

a) Thickness and chord.
b) Dihedral and angle of attack.
c) Span and chord.
47. Data transmitted between components in an EFIS are converted into:

a) analog signals.
b) carrier wave signals.
c) digital signals.
48. The requirements for testing and inspection of instrument static systems required by Section 91.411 are contained in:

a) AC 43.13-1A.
b) Part 43, appendix E.
c) Type Certificate Data Sheets.
49. The primary considerations when selecting electric cable size are:

a) the voltage and amperage of the load it must carry.
b) current carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop.
c) the system voltage and cable length.
50. The poles of a generator are laminated to:

a) reduce flux losses.
b) increase flux concentration.
c) reduce eddy current losses.
51. High pressure cylinders containing oxygen for aviation use can be identified by their:

a) green color and the words 'AVIATOR'S BREATHING OXYGEN' stenciled in 1-inch white letters.
b) yellow color and the words 'AVIATOR'S BREATHING OXYGEN' stenciled in 1-inch white letters.
c) green color and the words 'BREATHING OXYGEN' stenciled in 1-inch white letters.
52. Which procedure should you use if you find a vacuum operated instrument glass loose?

a) Install another instrument.
b) Mark the case and glass with a slippage mark.
c) Replace the glass.
53. The altitude controller maintains cabin altitude by modulation of the:

a) safety and outflow valves.
b) outflow valve.
c) safety valve.
54. Flapper valves are used in fuel tanks to:

a) prevent a negative pressure.
b) act as check valves.
c) reduce pressure.
55. Large airplanes and turbine-powered multiengine airplanes operated under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules, must be inspected:

a) in accordance with an inspection program authorized under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, Subpart E.
b) in accordance with the progressive inspection requirements of Federal Aviation Regulation Section 91.409(d).
c) in accordance with a continuous airworthiness maintenance program (camp program) authorized under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, Subpart E.
56. A drip gauge may be used to measure:

a) fuel pump diaphragm leakage.
b) the amount of fuel in the tank.
c) system leakage with the system shut down.
57. What is used to flush a system normally serviced with MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid?

a) Lacquer thinner or trichlorethylene.
b) Methyl ethyl ketone or kerosene.
c) Naphtha or varsol.
58. Which part(s) of a semi monocoque fuselage prevent(s) tension and compression from bending the fuselage?

a) The fuselage covering.
b) Longerons and stringers.
c) Bulkheads and skin.
59. Excessive wear in the center of the tread of an aircraft tire is an indication of:

a) overinflation.
b) incorrect camber.
c) excessive toe out.
60. The primary purpose of an aircraft's fuel jettison system is to quickly achieve a:

a) balanced fuel load.
b) lower landing weight.
c) reduced fire hazard.
61. What is the voltage drop for a No. 18 copper wire 50 feet long to carry 12.5 amperes, continuous operation?
Use the formula VD = RLA
VD = Voltage drop
R = Resistance per ft = .00644
L = Length of wire
A = Amperes

a) 4V.
b) 1V.
c) 1/2V.
62. What is one purpose of a fuel tank vent?

a) To maintain atmospheric pressure.
b) To decrease tank internal air pressure.
c) To decrease fuel vapor pressure.
63. When an unpressurized aircraft's static pressure system is leak checked to comply with the requirements of Section 91.411,
what aircraft instrument may be used in lieu of a pitot-static system tester?
1. Vertical speed indicator.
2. Cabin altimeter.
3. Altimeter.
4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator.
5. Airspeed indicator.

a) 3.
b) 1 or 5.
c) 2 or 4.
64. Which statement is correct concerning torque effect on helicopters?

a) Torque direction is the same as rotor blade rotation.
b) Torque direction is the opposite of rotor blade rotation.
c) As horsepower decreases, torque increases.
65. An O ring intended for use in a hydraulic system using MIL-H-5606 (mineral base) fluid will be marked with:

a) a blue stripe or dot.
b) a white and yellow stripe.
c) one or more white dots.
66. What is the recommended practice for cleaning a fuel tank before welding?

a) Steam clean the tank interior.
b) Purge the tank with air.
c) Flush the inside of the tank with clean water.
67. (1) If aviation gasoline vaporizes too readily, fuel lines may become filled with vapor and cause increased fuel flow.
(2) A measure of a gasoline's tendency to vapor lock is obtained from the Reid vapor pressure test.
Regarding the above statements,

a) neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
b) only No. 2 is true.
c) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
68. Before applying a protective coating to any unpainted clean aluminum, you should:

a) avoid touching the surface with bare hands.
b) wipe the surface with avgas or kerosene.
c) remove any conversion coating film.
69. When charging a vapor cycle cooling system after evacuation, the low pressure gauge fails to come out of a vacuum. What is indicated?

a) The compressor is not engaging.
b) The expansion valve failed to close.
c) Blockage in the system.
70. The green arc on an aircraft temperature gauge indicates:

a) a low, unsafe temperature range.
b) the desirable temperature range.
c) the instrument is not calibrated.
71. Which seals are used with petroleum base hydraulic fluids?

a) Butyl rubber.
b) Polyester.
c) Buna-N.
72. When servicing an air/oil shock strut with MIL-5606 the strut should be:

a) fully extended and fluid added at the filler opening.
b) collapsed and fluid added at the filler opening.
c) partially extended and fluid added at the filler opening.
73. Which of these methods may be used to inspect fiberglass/honeycomb structures for entrapped water?
1. Acoustic emission monitoring.
2. X-ray.
3. Backlighting.

a) 1 and 3.
b) 2 and 3.
c) 1 and 2.
74. The probe of a capacitance type fuel level gauge is essentially a:

a) float actuated variable capacitor.
b) capacitor with fuel and air acting as a dielectric.
c) capacitor with fuel and air acting as one plate.
75. Shallow scratches in sheet metal may be repaired by:

a) buffing.
b) stop drilling.
c) burnishing.
76. Fiberglass laminate damage not exceeding the first layer or ply can be repaired by:

a) trimming the rough edges and sealing with paint.
b) sanding the damaged area until aerodynamic smoothness is obtained.
c) filling with a putty consisting of a compatible resin and clean, short glass fibers.
77. (Refer to Airframe figure 1.)
Which of the rivets shown will accurately fit the conical depression made by a 100° countersink?

a) 1.
b) 3.
c) 2.
78. Rigging and alignment checks should not be undertaken in the open; however, if this cannot be avoided, the aircraft should be positioned:

a) obliquely into the wind.
b) with the nose into the wind.
c) facing any direction since it makes no difference if the wind is steady (not gusting).
79. What type of packings should be used in hydraulic components to be installed in a system containing Skydrol?

a) AN packings made of neoprene.
b) Packing materials made for ester base fluids.
c) AN packings made of natural rubber.
80. The primary function of the flap overload valve is to:

a) prevent the flaps from being lowered at airspeeds which would impose excessive structural loads.
b) boost normal system pressure to the flaps in order to overcome the air loads acting on the relatively large flap area.
c) cause the flap segments located on opposite sides of the aircraft centerline to extend and retract together so that the aircraft will not become aerodynamically unbalanced to the extent that it becomes uncontrollable.
81. If any one generator in a 24-volt dc system shows low voltage, the most likely cause is:

a) an out of adjustment voltage regulator.
b) shorted or grounded wiring.
c) a defective reverse current cutout relay.
82. (1) Oxygen used in aircraft systems is at least 99.5 percent pure and is practically water free.
(2) Oxygen used in aircraft systems is 99.5 percent pure and is hospital quality.
Regarding the above statements,

a) neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
b) only No. 1 is true.
c) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
83. A special bolt in a landing gear attachment requires a torque value of 440 inch-pounds. How many foot-pounds are required?

a) 36.6.
b) 38.
c) 36.8.
84. What characteristics of the installation of a rigid antenna on a vertical stabilizer should be evaluated?

a) Impedance and interference.
b) Polarization and impedance.
c) Flutter and vibration.
85. Fuel system components must be bonded and grounded in order to:

a) retard galvanic corrosion.
b) drain off static charges.
c) prevent stray currents.
86. How is the cabin pressure of a pressurized aircraft usually controlled?

a) By an automatic outflow valve that dumps all the pressure in excess of the amount for which it is set.
b) By a pressure sensitive switch that causes the pressurization pump to turn on or off as required.
c) By a pressure sensitive valve that controls the output pressure of the pressurization pump.
87. The I beam wooden spar is routed to:

a) increase strength.
b) reduce weight.
c) obtain uniform strength.
88. The chord of a wing is measured from:

a) wing root to the wingtip.
b) wingtip to wingtip.
c) leading edge to trailing edge.
89. How long should you wait after a flight before checking tire pressure?

a) At least 2 hours (3 hours in hot weather).
b) At least 4 hours (5 hours in hot weather).
c) At least 3 hours (4 hours in hot weather).
90. When installing transparent plastic enclosures which are retained by bolts extending through the plastic material and self-locking nuts, the nuts should be:

a) tightened to a firm fit, then backed off one full turn.
b) tightened to a firm fit.
c) tightened to a firm fit, plus one full turn.
91. Under certain conditions, 'Type A' rivets are not used because of their:

a) high alloy content.
b) tendency toward embrittlement when subjected to vibration.
c) low strength characteristics.
92. Finishing tape (surface tape) is used for what purpose?

a) To provide additional wear resistance over the edges of fabric forming structures.
b) To help prevent 'ripple formation' in covering fabric.
c) To provide additional anti-tear resistance under reinforcement tape.
93. What nondestructive checking method is normally used to ensure that the correct amount of swaging has taken place when installing swaged-type terminals on aircraft control cable?

a) Check the surface of the swaged portion of the terminal for small cracks which indicate incomplete swaging.
b) Measure the finished length of the terminal barrel and compare with the beginning length.
c) Use a terminal gauge to check the diameter of the swaged portion of the terminal.
94. Which of the following should be accomplished in the installation of aircraft wiring?

a) Provide adequate slack in the wire bundle to compensate for large changes in temperature.
b) Support the bundle to structure and/ or solid fluid lines to prevent chafing damage
c) Locate the bundle above flammable fluid lines and securely clamp to structure.
95. In a gaseous oxygen system, which of the following are vented to blow out plugs in the fuselage skin?

a) Pressure reducer valves.
b) Pressure relief valves.
c) Filler shutoff valves.
96. Magnetic compass bowls are filled with a liquid to:

a) dampen the oscillation of the float.
b) retard precession of the float.
c) reduce deviation errors.
97. When operationally checking an autopilot system on the ground, after the aircraft's main power has been switched on, the autopilot should be engaged:

a) whenever the operator desires.
b) only after the gyros come up to speed and the amplifier warms up.
c) for only a few minutes at a time.
98. What marking color is used to indicate if a cover glass has slipped?

a) Red.
b) Yellow.
c) White.
99. When installing a DME antenna, it should be aligned with the:

a) angle of incidence.
b) null position.
c) centerline on the airplane.
100. Teflon hose that has developed a permanent set from being exposed to high pressure or temperature should:

a) be immediately replaced.
b) not be straightened or bent further.
c) not be reinstalled once removed.
101. Which of the following is adversely affected by atmospheric humidity if left unprotected?
1. MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid.
2. Skydrol hydraulic fluid.
3. None of the above.

a) 3.
b) 2.
c) 1 and 2.
102. Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere at:

a) high current levels.
b) low current levels.
c) high voltage level.
103. After installation of a rebuilt hydraulic hand pump, it is found that the handle cannot be moved in the pumping direction (pressure stroke). The most likely cause is an incorrectly installed:

a) inport/outport orifice check valve.
b) hand pump inport check valve.
c) hand pump outport check valve.
104. Why are centrifugal type boost pumps used in fuel systems of aircraft operating at high altitude?

a) To permit cooling air to circulate around the motor.
b) Because they are positive displacement pumps.
c) To supply fuel under pressure to engine driven pumps.
105. A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used effectively until after the working face has been:

a) tinned.
b) polished.
c) fluxed.
106. When necessary during operation, CSD disconnect is usually accomplished by:

a) a shear section in the input shaft.
b) a switch in the cockpit.
c) circuit breaker activation.
107. The strength of a well designed and properly prepared wood splice joint is provided by the:

a) reinforcement plates.
b) glue.
c) bearing surface of the wood fibers.
108. When purging a freon air conditioning system, it is important to release the charge at a slow rate.
What is the reason for the slow rate discharge?

a) Prevent condensation from forming and contaminating the system.
b) Prevent excessive loss of refrigerant oil.
c) Prevent the large amount of freon from contaminating the surrounding atmosphere.
109. To prevent external and internal leakage in aircraft hydraulic units, the most commonly used type of seal is the:

a) gasket seal.
b) O ring seal.
c) chevron seal.
110. The unit which causes one hydraulic operation to follow another in a definite order is called a:

a) selector valve.
b) shuttle valve.
c) sequence valve.
111. Which of the following precautions is most important during refueling operations?

a) All outside electrical sources must be disconnected from the aircraft.
b) Fuel to be used must be appropriately identified.
c) All electrical switches must be in OFF position.
112. The angle of incidence of an airplane at rest:

a) is the same as the angle between the relative wind and the chord of the wing.
b) does not change when in flight.
c) affects the dihedral of the wings in flight.
113. (Refer to Airframe figure 16.) Which of the antennas shown is a typical glideslope antenna?

a) 3.
b) 2.
c) 4.
114. A main difference between Lockbolt/ Huckbolt tension and shear fasteners (other than their application) is in the:

a) method of installation.
b) shape of the head.
c) number of locking collar grooves.
115. (Refer to Airframe figure 4.) The length of flat A is:

a) 3.937 inches.
b) 3.875 inches.
c) 3.750 inches.
116. Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or metals are hot. It is important, therefore, when welding aluminum to use a:

a) filler.
b) solvent.
c) flux.
117. What is one advantage of piston type hydraulic motors over electric motors?

a) There is no fire hazard if the motor is stalled.
b) They are considerably quieter in operation.
c) They work satisfactorily over a wider temperature range.
118. A capacitance type fuel quantity indicating system measures fuel in:

a) pounds per hour
b) pounds.
c) gallons.
119. Which defect in aircraft finishes may be caused by adverse humidity, drafts, or sudden changes in temperature?

a) Blushing.
b) Pinholes.
c) Orange peel.
120. What method of repair is recommended for a steel tube longeron dented at a cluster?

a) Welded split sleeve.
b) Welded outer sleeve.
c) Welded patch plate.
121. The operation of an aircraft combustion heater is usually controlled by a thermostat circuit which:

a) alternately turns the fuel on and off, a process known as cycling.
b) regulates the voltage applied to the heater's ignition transformer.
c) meters the amount of fuel continuously entering the heater and therefore regulates the heater's BTU output.
122. After a hydraulic accumulator has been installed and air chamber charged, the main system hydraulic pressure gauge will not show a hydraulic pressure reading until:

a) the fluid side of the accumulator has been charged.
b) the air pressure has become equal to the fluid pressure.
c) at least one selector valve has been actuated to allow fluid to flow into the fluid side of the accumulator.
123. Integrated drive generators (IDG) employ a type of high output ac generator that utilizes:

a) a brushless system to produce current.
b) battery current to excite the field.
c) brushes and slip rings to carry generated dc exciter current to the rotating field.
124. Proper pre-preg composite lay-up curing is generally accomplished by:
1. applying external heat.
2. room temperature exposure.
3. adding a catalyst or curing agent to the resin.
4. applying pressure.

a) 1 and 4.
b) 1, 3, and 4.
c) 2 and 3.
125. Aircraft fuse capacity is rated in:

a) amperes.
b) ohms.
c) volts.
126. Who is authorized to repair an aircraft instrument?
1. A certified mechanic with an airframe rating.
2. A certificated repairman with an airframe rating.
3. A certificated repair station approved for that class instrument.
4. A certificated airframe repair station.

a) 3.
b) 1, 2, 3, and 4.
c) 3 and 4.
127. Oxygen and acetylene cylinders are made of:

a) seamless aluminum.
b) bronze.
c) steel.
128. What is the smallest size cable that may be used in aircraft primary control systems?

a) 1/8 inch.
b) 5/16 inch.
c) 1/4 inch.
129. Which is considered a good practice concerning the inspection of heating and exhaust systems of aircraft utilizing a jacket around the engine exhaust as a heat source?

a) All exhaust system components should be removed periodically, and their condition determined by the magnetic particle inspection method.
b) Supplement physical inspections with periodic operational carbon monoxide detection tests.
c) All exhaust system components should be removed and replaced at each 100-hour inspection period.
130. The purpose of a sequence valve in a hydraulic retractable landing gear system is to:

a) ensure operation of the landing gear and gear doors in the proper order.
b) provide a means of disconnecting the normal source of hydraulic power and connecting the emergency source of power.
c) prevent heavy landing gear from falling too rapidly upon extension.
131. The primary purpose of stall strips is to:

a) provide added lift at slow speeds.
b) provide added lift at high angles of attack.
c) stall the inboard portion of the wings first.
132. Which best describes cabin differential pressure?

a) Difference between cabin flight altitude pressure and Mean Sea Level pressure.
b) Difference between the ambient and internal air pressure.
c) Difference between cabin pressure controller setting and actual cabin pressure.
133. How does the routing of coaxial cables differ from the routing of electrical wiring?

a) Coaxial cables are routed as directly as possible.
b) Coaxial cables are routed at right angles to stringers or ribs.
c) Coaxial cables are routed parallel with stringers or ribs.
134. A certificated mechanic may perform:

a) 100-hour inspections of instruments.
b) minor repairs to instruments.
c) instrument overhaul.
135. A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. The curvature of the bend is referred to as the:

a) bend allowance.
b) bend radius.
c) neutral line.
136. What is a method used for restoring generator field residual magnetism:

a) Energize the armature.
b) Flash the fields.
c) Reseat the brushes.
137. When must the radio station license be displayed in an aircraft equipped with a two-way radio?

a) When the aircraft is returned to service.
b) When the aircraft is operated outside the U.S..
c) When the aircraft is certified for IFR flight.
138. In installations where the ammeter is in the generator or alternator lead, and the regulator system
does not limit the maximum current that the generator or alternator can deliver, the ammeter can be
redlined at what percent of the generator or alternator rating?

a) 100.
b) 50.
c) 75.
139. (Refer to Airframe figure 13.)
Determine what unit is located immediately downstream of the expansion valve in a freon refrigeration system.

a) Condenser.
b) Evaporator coils.
c) Compressor.
140. The cabin pressure of an aircraft in flight is maintained at the selected altitude by:

a) controlling the air inflow rate.
b) inflating door seals and recirculating conditioned cabin air.
c) controlling the rate at which air leaves the cabin.
141. When moving the mixture control on a normally operating engine into the idle cutoff position, engine RPM should:

a) slightly increase before the engine starts to die.
b) slightly decrease and then drop rapidly.
c) remain the same until the cutoff is effected, then drop rapidly.
142. The auxiliary (tail) rotor of a helicopter permits the pilot to compensate for and/or accomplish which of the following?

a) Lateral and yaw position.
b) Torque and directional control.
c) Attitude and airspeed.
143. Dutch roll, a combination yawing and rolling oscillation that affects many sweptwing aircraft, is counteracted with:

a) an aileron damper system.
b) a flight director system.
c) a yaw damper system.
144. An airplane's center of lift is usually located aft of its center of gravity:

a) so that the airplane will have a tail heavy tendency.
b) to improve stability about the longitudinal axis.
c) so that the airplane will have a nose heavy tendency.
145. How does temperature affect fuel weight?

a) Temperature has no effect.
b) Warm fuel is heavier per gallon.
c) Cold fuel is heavier per gallon.
146. The correct dihedral angle can be determined by:

a) using a dihedral board and bubble level along the front spar of each wing.
b) placing a straightedge and bubble protractor across the spars while the airplane is in flying position.
c) measuring the angular setting of each wing at the rear spar with a bubble protractor.
147. Why is the main fuel strainer located at the lowest point in the fuel system?

a) It traps any small amount of water that may be present in the fuel system.
b) It provides a drain for residual fuel.
c) It filters and traps all micro organisms that may be present in the fuel system.
148. The strength classification of fabrics used in aircraft covering is based on:

a) shear strength.
b) bearing strength.
c) tensile strength.
149. (1) Machine sewn seams in aircraft covering fabrics may be of the folded fell or French fell types.
(2) A plain lapped seam is never permissible.
Regarding the above statements,

a) only No. 1 is true.
b) only No. 2 is true
c) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
150. Which channel of an autopilot detects changes in pitch attitude of an aircraft?

a) Elevator.
b) Aileron.
c) Rudder.
151. What unit would be adjusted to change the fuel pressure warning limits?

a) Pressure sensitive mechanism.
b) Fuel pressure relief valve.
c) Fuel flowmeter bypass valve.
152. A DME antenna should be located in a position on the aircraft that will:

a) eliminate the possibility of the DME locking on a station.
b) permit interruptions in DME operation.
c) not be blanked by the wing when the aircraft is banked.
153. One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity indicating systems is that:

a) several fuel tank levels can be read on one indicator.
b) only one transmitter and one indicator are needed regardless of the number of tanks.
c) the indicators are calibrated in gallons; therefore, no conversion is necessary.
154. Which of the following must be accomplished when installing an anticollision light?

a) Install a switch independent of the position light switch.
b) Connect the anticollision light to the aircraft position light switch.
c) Use shielded electrical cable to assure fail safe operation.
155. One of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type fasteners over earlier generations is that:

a) they can be removed and reused again.
b) the squeezed on collar installation provides a more secure, tighter fit.
c) they can be installed with ordinary hand tools.
156. The operating mechanism of most hydraulic pressure gauges is:

a) a Bourdon tube.
b) an evacuated bellows filled with an inert gas to which suitable arms, levers, and gears are attached.
c) an airtight diaphragm.
157. The main cause of contamination in gaseous oxygen systems is:

a) other atmospheric gases.
b) moisture.
c) dust and other airborne particulates.
158. Fairleads should never deflect the alignment of a cable more than:

a) 3°.
b) 8°.
c) 12°.
159. Why is it generally necessary to jack an aircraft indoors for weighing?

a) So weighing scales may be calibrated to 0 pounds.
b) So aircraft may be placed in a level position.
c) So that air currents do not destabilize the scales.
160. What type of oxygen system uses the rebreather bag-type mask?

a) Diluter demand.
b) Demand.
c) Continuous flow.
161. How can the proper hydraulic fluid to be used in an airplane be determined?

a) Refer to the aircraft parts manual.
b) Consult the aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheet.
c) Consult the aircraft manufacturer's service manual.
162. When making repairs to fiberglass, cleaning of the area to be repaired is essential for a good bond. The final cleaning should be made using:

a) a thixotropic agent.
b) MEK (methyl ethyl ketone).
c) soap, water, and a scrub brush.
163. If hydraulic fluid is released when the air valve core of the accumulator is depressed, it is evidence of:

a) excessive accumulator air pressure.
b) a leaking check valve.
c) a ruptured diaphragm or leaking seals.
164. When dope-proofing the parts of the aircraft structure that come in contact with doped fabric, which of the following provide an acceptable protective coating?
1. Aluminum foil.
2. Resin impregnated cloth tape.
3. Any one-part type metal primer.
4. Cellulose tape.

a) 1 and 2.
b) 1 and 4.
c) 3 and 4.
165. In brake service work, the term 'bleeding brakes' is the process of:

a) withdrawing fluid from the system for the purpose of removing air that has entered the system.
b) withdrawing air only from the system.
c) replacing small amounts of fluid in reservoir.
166. (Refer to Airframe figure 6.)
Determine the dimensions of A, B, and C in the flat layout. Setback = .252 Bend allowance = .345

a) A = 1.252; B = 2.504; C = 1.752.
b) A = .748; B = 2.252; C = 2.004.
c) A = .748; B = 1.496; C = 1.248.
167. You can distinguish between aluminum and aluminum alloy by:

a) filing the metal.
b) testing with an acetic acid solution.
c) testing with a 10 percent solution of caustic soda.
168. Severe kickback of the emergency hydraulic hand pump handle during the normal intake stroke will indicate which of the following?

a) The hand pump outlet check valve is sticking open.
b) The hand pump inlet check valve is sticking open.
c) The main system relief valve is set too high.
169. An aircraft instrument panel is electrically bonded to the aircraft structure to:

a) aid in the panel installation.
b) provide current return paths.
c) act as a restraint strap.
170. A potted compound repair on honeycomb can usually be made on damages less than:

a) 2 inches in diameter.
b) 4 inches in diameter.
c) 1 inch in diameter.
171. If all instructions issued by the swaging tool manufacturer are followed when swaging a cable terminal, the resultant swaged terminal strength should be:

a) 70 percent of the full rated strength of the cable.
b) 80 percent of the full rated strength of the cable.
c) the full rated strength of the cable.
172. The primary purpose of a fuel tank sump is to provide a:

a) positive system of maintaining the design minimum fuel supply for safe operation.
b) reserve supply of fuel to enable the aircraft to land safely in the event of fuel exhaustion.
c) place where water and dirt accumulations in the tank can collect and be drained.
173. The universal propeller protractor can be used to measure:

a) propeller track
b) degrees of flap travel.
c) aspect ratio of a wing.
174. (1) A fuel heater can use engine bleed air as a source of heat.
(2) A fuel heater can use engine lubricating oil as a source of heat.
Regarding the above statements,

a) only No. 1 is true.
b) neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
c) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
175. Edge notching is generally recommended in butt welding above a certain thickness of aluminum because it:

a) helps hold the metal in alignment during welding.
b) aids in getting full penetration of the metal and prevents local distortion.
c) aids in the removal or penetration of oxides on the metal surface.
176. The point at which freon flowing through a vapor cycle cooling system gives up heat and changes from a gas to a liquid is the:

a) evaporator.
b) expansion valve.
c) condenser.
177. Annealing of aluminum

a) increases the tensile strength.
b) removes stresses caused by forming.
c) makes the material brittle.
178. What is the purpose of the free wheeling unit in a helicopter drive system?

a) It disconnects the rotor whenever the engine stops or slows below the equivalent of rotor RPM.
b) It relieves bending stress on the rotor blades during starting.
c) It releases the rotor brake for starting.
179. The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing is called:

a) acidity.
b) viscosity.
c) volatility.
180. A helicopter in forward flight, cruise configuration, changes direction by:

a) tilting the main rotor disk in the desired direction.
b) varying the pitch of the main rotor blades.
c) changing rotor RPM.
181. Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 rivets) should not be used in composite structures primarily because of the:

a) difficulty in forming a proper shop head.
b) possibility of causing delamination.
c) increased possibility of fretting corrosion in the fastener.
182. If no scratches are visible after transparent plastic enclosure materials have been cleaned, their surfaces should be:

a) covered with a thin coat of wax.
b) buffed with a clean, soft, dry cloth.
c) polished with rubbing compound applied with a damp cloth.
183. (1) On a large aircraft pressure refueling system, a pressure refueling receptacle and control panel
will permit one person to fuel or defuel any or all fuel tanks of an aircraft.
(2) Because of the fuel tank area, there are more advantages to a pressure fueling system in light aircraft.
Regarding the above statements,

a) only No. 1 is true.
b) only No. 2 is true.
c) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
184. Which of the following would be most useful to locate and troubleshoot an internal fuel leak in an aircraft fuel system?

a) Illustrated parts manual.
b) Aircraft structure repair manual.
c) A fuel system schematic.
185. How would the air pressure charge in the accumulator be determined if the engine is inoperative, but the system still has hydraulic pressure?

a) Read it directly from the main system pressure gauge with all actuators inoperative.
b) Operate a hydraulic unit slowly and note the pressure at which a rapid pressure drop begins as it goes toward zero.
c) Build up system pressure with the emergency pump and then read the pressure on a gauge attached to the air side of the accumulator.
186. If a wire is installed so that it comes in contact with some moving parts, what protection should be given the wire?

a) Pass through conduit.
b) Wrap with friction tape.
c) Wrap with soft wire solder into a shield.
187. According to Part 23, what minimum required markings must be placed at or near each appropriate
fuel filler cover for reciprocating engine-powered airplanes?

a) The word 'Fuel' and usable fuel capacity.
b) The word 'Avgas' and the minimum fuel grade.
c) The word 'Avgas' and the total fuel capacity.
188. The main system pressure relief valve in a simple hydraulic system equipped with a power control valve should be adjusted:

a) while one or more actuating units are in operation.
b) with the power control valve in the OPEN position.
c) with the power control valve held in the CLOSED position.
189. Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb construction are used on modern aircraft because this type of construction:

a) has a high strength to weight ratio.
b) may be repaired by gluing replacement skin to the inner core material with thermoplastic resin.
c) is lighter than single sheet skin of the same strength and is more corrosion resistant.
190. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheels will:

a) indicate tire tread separation.
b) prevent overinflation.
c) melt at a specified elevated temperature.
191. One of the best ways to assure that a properly prepared batch of matrix resin has been achieved is to:

a) test the viscosity of the resin immediately after mixing.
b) perform a chemical composition analysis.
c) have mixed enough for a test sample.
192. Exposure to and/or storage near which of the following is considered harmful to aircraft tires?
1. Low humidity.
2. Fuel.
3. Oil.
4. Ozone.
5. Helium.
6. Electrical equipment.
7. Hydraulic fluid.
8. Solvents.

a) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8.
b) 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8.
c) 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8.
193. An airplane that has a tendency to gradually increase a pitching moment that has been set into motion has:

a) poor longitudinal stability.
b) good lateral stability.
c) poor lateral stability.
194. One purpose of a jet pump in a pressurization and air conditioning system is to:

a) produce a high pressure for operation of the outflow valve.
b) provide for augmentation of airflow in some areas of the aircraft.
c) assist in the circulation of freon.
195. In shock struts, chevron seals are used to:

a) serve as a bearing surface.
b) absorb bottoming effect.
c) prevent oil from escaping.
196. What should be checked when a shock strut bottoms during a landing?

a) Air pressure.
b) Fluid level.
c) Packing seals for correct installation.
197. (Refer to Airframe figure 15.) What is the approximate drag load on an antenna with a frontal area of .125 square feet installed on an aircraft with a speed of 225 MPH?

a) 2.069 pounds.
b) 2.073 pounds.
c) 2.080 pounds
198. In general, the purpose of an aircraft transponder is to:

a) receive an interrogation signal from a ground station and automatically send a reply back.
b) monitor aircraft speed, heading, altitude, and attitude whenever the autopilot system is engaged.
c) continually transmit heading, speed, and rate of climb/decent etc. information to ATC.
199. When using the voltage drop method of checking circuit resistance, the:

a) input voltage must be varied.
b) input voltage must be maintained at a constant value.
c) output voltage must be maintained at a constant value
200. Cabin upholstery materials installed in current standard category airplanes must:

a) be at least flame resistant.
b) meet the requirements prescribed in Part 43.
c) be fireproof.
201. Fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit data:

a) electrically.
b) utilizing fluid power.
c) mechanically.
202. Pneumatic systems utilize:

a) return lines.
b) diluter valves.
c) relief valves.
203. When repairing puncture type damage of a metal faced laminated honeycomb panel, the edges of the doubler should be tapered to:

a) two times the thickness of the metal.
b) 100 times the thickness of the metal.
c) whatever is desired for a neat, clean appearance.
204. The point at which freon flowing through a vapor cycle cooling system absorbs heat and changes from a liquid to a gas is the:

a) expansion valve.
b) evaporator.
c) condenser.
205. Which procedure must be followed when defueling aircraft with sweptback wings?

a) Defuel all the tanks at one time.
b) Defuel the inboard wing tanks first.
c) Defuel the outboard wing tanks first.
206. An aircraft antenna installation must be grounded:

a) to the airframe.
b) to the radio rack.
c) to the engine
207. Although dents in the heel of a bend are not permissible, they are acceptable in the remainder of a hydraulic tube providing they are less than what percent of the tube diameter?

a) 5.
b) 10.
c) 20.
208. (Refer to Airframe figure 11.) Which fitting is an AN flared tube fitting?

a) 3.
b) 1.
c) 2.
209. Hydraulic fluid filtering elements constructed of porous paper are normally:

a) not approved for use in certificated aircraft.
b) cleaned and reused.
c) discarded at regular intervals and replaced with new filtering elements.
210. The purpose of an orifice check valve is to:

a) relieve pressure to a sensitive component.
b) restrict flow in one direction and allow free flow in the other.
c) relieve pressure in one direction and prevent flow in the other direction.
211. The determining factor(s) for the selection of the correct weight of textile fabric to be used in covering any type of aircraft is the:

a) speed of the aircraft.
b) speed of the aircraft and the maximum wing loading.
c) maximum wing loading.
212. Heat treated rivets in the D and DD series that are not driven within the prescribed time after heat treatment or removal from refrigeration:

a) must be reheat treated before use.
b) must be discarded.
c) may be returned to refrigeration and used later without reheat treatment.
213. What method is used on turbine powered aircraft to determine when the condition of the fuel is
approaching the danger of forming ice crystals?

a) Fuel pressure gauge.
b) Fuel temperature indicator.
c) Fuel pressure warning.
214. What test is used to determine the serviceability of an oxygen cylinder?

a) Pressure test with nitrogen.
b) Pressure test with manometer.
c) Pressure test with water.
215. One advantage of using ac electrical power in aircraft is:

a) greater ease in stepping the voltage up or down.
b) that the effective voltage is 1.41 times the maximum instantaneous voltage; therefore, less power input is required.
c) that ac electrical motors can be reversed while dc motors cannot.
216. Which statement best describes magnesium welding?

a) Filler rod should be the same composition as base metal.
b) Magnesium can be welded to other metals.
c) Filler rod should be nickel steel.
217. When Refrigerant 12 is passed over an open flame, it:

a) is broken down into its basic chemical elements.
b) changes to methane gas.
c) changes to phosgene gas.
218. Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to finish a drilled hole to the correct size?

a) Apply considerable pressure on the reamer when starting the cut and reduce the pressure when finishing the cut.
b) Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when enlarging the hole and in the opposite direction to remove from the hole.
c) Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction.
219. Doublers are used when antennas are installed to:

a) eliminate antenna vibration.
b) reinstate the structural strength of the aircraft skin.
c) prevent oil canning of the skin.
220. Quick disconnect couplings in hydraulic systems provide a means of:

a) quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines and eliminate the possibility of contaminates entering the system.
b) quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines without loss of fluid or entrance of air into the system.
c) easily replacing hydraulic lines in areas where leaks are common.
221. (Refer to Airframe figure 2.)
Select the preferred drawing for proper countersinking.

a) 2.
b) All are acceptable.
c) 1.
222. The cantilever wing uses:

a) no external bracing.
b) external struts or wire bracing.
c) the skin to carry most of the load to the wing butt.
223. What is the function of a cam incorporated in a nose gear shock strut?

a) Straightens the nosewheel.
b) Provides steering of aircraft during ground operation.
c) Provides an internal shimmy damper.
224. The installation of a new metal hydraulic line should be made with:

a) enough bends to allow the tube to expand and contract with temperature changes and to absorb vibration.
b) a straight tube to withstand the shocks and vibration to which it will be subjected.
c) a straight tube to permit proper alignment of the fitting and thereby reduce fluid loss through leakage.
225. How may the battery replacement date be verified for an emergency locator transmitter (ELT)?

a) By observing the battery replacement date marked on the outside of the transmitter.
b) By activating the transmitter and measuring the signal strength.
c) By removing the batteries and testing them under a measured load to determine if 50 percent of the useful life remains.
226. When an aircraft's oxygen system has developed a leak, the lines and fittings should be:

a) inspected using a special oxygen system dye penetrant.
b) bubble tested with a special soap solution manufactured specifically for this purpose.
c) removed and replaced.
227. What is the main purpose of a pressurized reservoir in a hydraulic system?

a) Prevent hydraulic pump cavitation.
b) Prevent hydraulic fluid from foaming.
c) Prevent tank collapse at altitude.
228. If an aircraft is fueled from a truck or storage tank which is known to be uncontaminated with dirt or
water, periodic checks of the aircraft's fuel tank sumps and system strainers:

a) can be eliminated except for the strainer check before the first flight of the day and the fuel tank sump check during 100-hour or annual inspections.
b) are still necessary due to the possibility of contamination from other sources.
c) can be sharply reduced since contamination from other sources is relatively unlikely and of little consequence in modern aircraft fuel systems.
229. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for soft metals?

a) 118°.
b) 65°.
c) 90°.
230. Fuel is moved overboard in most fuel jettison systems by:

a) gravity and engine driven fuel pumps.
b) boost pumps.
c) gravity.
231. Where would you find precise information to perform a symmetry alignment check for a particular aircraft?

a) Manufacturer's service bulletins.
b) Aircraft service or maintenance manual.
c) Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data Sheet.
232. One purpose of the freewheeling unit required between the engine and the helicopter transmission is to:

a) automatically disengage the rotor from the engine in case of an engine failure.
b) permit practice of autorotation landings.
c) disconnect the rotor from the engine to relieve the starter load.
233. What component might possibly be damaged if liquid refrigerant is introduced into the low side of a vapor cycle cooling system when the pressure is too high or the outside air temperature is too low?

a) Condenser.
b) Compressor.
c) Evaporator.
234. How is the air in a hydraulic accumulator prevented from entering the fluid system?

a) By physically separating the air chamber from the oil chamber with a flexible or movable separator.
b) By including a valve that automatically closes when the fluid level lowers to a preset amount.
c) By forcing the oil/air mixture through a centrifugal separating chamber that prevents the air from leaving the accumulator.
235. When used in close proximity to magnetic compasses, cotter pins are made of what material?

a) Cadmium plated low carbon steel.
b) Corrosion resisting steel.
c) Anodized aluminum alloy.
236. If registration numbers are to be applied to an aircraft with a letter height of 12 inches, what is the minimum space required for the registration mark N1683C?
Note: 2/3 x height = character width. 1/6 x height = width for 1. 1/4 x 2/3 height = spacing. 1/6 x height = stroke or line width.

a) 48 inches.
b) 57 inches
c) 52 inches.
237. If a single rotor helicopter is in forward horizontal flight, the angle of attack of the advancing blade is:

a) less than the retreating blade.
b) equal to the retreating blade.
c) more than the retreating blade.
238. A pilot reports the right brake on an aircraft is spongy when the brake pedal is depressed in a normal manner. The probable cause is:

a) air in the brake hydraulic system.
b) the hydraulic master cylinder piston return spring is weak.
c) the hydraulic master cylinder piston is sticking.
239. If it is necessary to enter an aircraft's fuel tank, which procedure should be avoided?

a) Station an assistant outside the fuel tank access to perform rescue operations if required.
b) Conduct the defueling and tank purging operation in an air conditioned building.
c) Continue purging the tank during the entire work period.
240. Before a high pressure oxygen cylinder is serviced, it must be the correct type and have been:

a) approved by the National Transportation Safety Board.
b) inspected by a certificated airframe mechanic.
c) hydrostatically tested within the proper time interval.
241. A radar altimeter indicates:

a) altitude above ground level.
b) flight level (pressure) altitude.
c) altitude above sea level.
242. Aircraft tire pressure should be checked:

a) using only a push on stick-type gauge having 1-pound increments.
b) as soon as possible after each flight.
c) at least once a week or more often.
243. A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate:
1. pressure.
2. temperature.
3. position.

a) 1 and 2.
b) 2 and 3
c) 1.
244. If it is necessary to adjust several pressure regulating valves in a hydraulic system, what particular sequence, if any, should be followed?

a) Units are independent of each other, and therefore, no particular sequence is necessary.
b) Units with the highest pressure settings are adjusted first.
c) Units most distant from the hydraulic pump should be adjusted first.
245. Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine supports, etc., which have been built up from sheet metal, are normally:

a) not repairable, but must be replaced when damaged or deteriorated.
b) repairable, except when subjected to compressive loads.
c) repairable, using approved methods.
246. What method would be used to check for internal leakage of a fuel valve without removing the valve from the aircraft?

a) Place the valve in the OFF position, drain the strainer bowl, and with boost pump on, watch to see if fuel flows to the strainer bowl.
b) Apply regulated air pressure on the downstream side of the fuel pump and listen for air passing through the valve.
c) Remove fuel cap(s), turn boost pump(s) on, and watch for bubbling in the tanks.
247. What is one effect a restricted compensator port of a master cylinder will have on a brake system?

a) The brakes will operate normally.
b) The reservoir will be filled by reverse flow.
c) The restriction will cause slow release of the brakes.
248. What minimum required markings must be placed on or near each appropriate fuel filler cover on utility category aircraft?

a) The word 'Avgas' and the minimum fuel grade, and the total fuel tank capacity.
b) The word 'Avgas' and the minimum fuel grade .
c) The word 'Avgas' and the minimum fuel grade or designation for the engines, and the usable fuel tank capacity.
249. In which control element of an autopilot system is an attitude indicator?

a) Input.
b) Command.
c) Sensing.
250. How often should standard weight high pressure oxygen cylinders be hydrostatically tested?

a) Every 3 years.
b) Every 5 years.
c) Every 4 years.
251. The metering pins in oleo shock struts serve to:

a) meter the proper amount of air in the struts.
b) retard the flow of oil as the struts are compressed.
c) lock the struts in the DOWN position.
252. The maximum altitude loss permitted during an unpressurized aircraft instrument static pressure system integrity check is:

a) 200 feet in 1 minute.
b) 50 feet in 1 minute.
c) 100 feet in 1 minute.
253. Where is fuselage station No. 137 located?

a) Aft of the engine.
b) 137 centimeters aft of the nose or fixed reference line.
c) 137 inches aft of the zero or fixed reference line.
254. Which is true regarding the ground check of a flap operating mechanism which has just been installed?

a) If the time required to operate the mechanism increases with successive operations, it indicates the air is being worked out of the system.
b) All hydraulic lines and components should be checked for leaks by applying soapy water to all connections.
c) If the time required to operate the mechanism decreases with successive operations, it indicates the air is being worked out of the system.
255. Oxygen systems in unpressurized aircraft are generally of the:

a) portable bottle type only.
b) continuous flow and pressure demand types.
c) pressure demand type only.
256. Joggles in removed rivet shanks would indicate partial

a) shear failure.
b) bearing failure.
c) torsion failure.
257. What controls the amount of oxygen delivered to a mask in a continuous flow oxygen system?

a) Pressure reducing valve.
b) Calibrated orifice.
c) Pilot's regulator.
258. The component in the hydraulic system that is used to direct the flow of fluid is the:

a) selector valve.
b) orifice check valve.
c) check valve.
259. What is the material layer used within the vacuum bag pressure system to absorb excess resin during curing called?

a) Release
b) Bleeder.
c) Breather.
260. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud length is measured in:

a) tenths of an inch.
b) hundredths of an inch.
c) sixteenths of an inch.
261. What does a reciprocating engine manifold pressure gauge indicate when the engine is not operating?

a) Zero pressure.
b) The existing atmospheric pressure.
c) The differential between the manifold pressure and the atmospheric pressure.
262. A landing gear position and warning system will provide a warning in the cockpit when the throttle is:

a) advanced and gear is down and locked.
b) retarded and gear is not down and locked.
c) retarded and gear is down and locked.
263. In cases of elongated boltholes in a wood spar or cracks in the vicinity of boltholes,

a) the spar may be reinforced by using hardwood reinforcing plates.
b) it is permissible to ream the hole, plug with hardwood, and redrill.
c) a new section of spar should be spliced in or the spar replaced entirely.
264. Overinflated aircraft tires may cause damage to the:

a) wheel flange.
b) brake linings.
c) wheel hub.
265. Circuits that must be operated only in an emergency or whose inadvertent activation could endanger a system frequently employ:

a) guarded switches.
b) push-pull-type circuit breakers only (no switches).
c) spring-loaded to off toggle or rocker switches.
266. Which rivets should be selected to join two sheets of .032-inch aluminum?

a) MS20455DD-5-3.
b) MS20425D-4-3.
c) MS20470AD-4-4.
267. The oxyacetylene flame used for aluminum welding should:

a) be neutral and soft.
b) be slightly oxidizing.
c) contain an excess of acetylene and leave the tip at a relatively low speed.
268. Which statement is correct regarding an aircraft that is found to be unairworthy after an annual inspection, due to an item requiring a major repair (assuming approved data is used to accomplish the repair)?

a) An appropriately rated mechanic or repair station may repair the defect and approve the aircraft for return to service.
b) An appropriately rated mechanic may accomplish the repair, and an IA may approve the aircraft for return to service.
c) Only the person who performed the annual inspection may approve the aircraft for return to service, after the major repair.
269. What will be the result if the instrument static pressure line becomes disconnected inside a pressurized cabin during cruising flight?

a) The altimeter will read low and the airspeed indicator will read high.
b) The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both read low.
c) The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both read high.
270. The purpose of a subcooler in a vapor cycle cooling system is to:

a) aid in quick cooling a hot aircraft interior.
b) augment the cooling capacity during periods of peak demand.
c) cool the freon to prevent premature vaporization.
271. Normal fuel crossfeed system operation in multiengine aircraft:

a) provides a means to maintain a balanced fuel load condition.
b) reduces contamination and/or fire hazards during fueling or defueling operations.
c) calls for jettisoning of fuel overboard to correct lateral instability.
272. When dc generators are operated in parallel to supply power for a single load, their controls include an equalizer circuit to assure that all generators share the load equally.
The equalizer circuit operates by:

a) increasing the output of the low generator and decreasing the output of the high generator until they are equal.
b) increasing the output of the low generator to equal the output of the high generator.
c) decreasing the output of the high generator to equal the output of the low generator.
273. (1) The function of a fuel heater is to protect the engine fuel system from ice formation.
(2) An aircraft fuel heater cannot be used to thaw ice in the fuel screen.
Regarding the above statements,

a) only No. 1 is true.
b) only No. 2 is true.
c) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
274. A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all metal aircraft is used primarily to:

a) retain a set tension.
b) increase the cable tension in cold weather.
c) provide a means of changing cable tension in flight.
275. A category of plastic material that is capable of softening or flowing when reheated is described as a:

a) thermoplastic.
b) thermocure.
c) thermoset.
276. (Refer to Airframe figure 18.) Which of the batteries are connected together incorrectly?

a) 1.
b) 2.
c) 3.
277. What is the color and orientation of the position lights for navigation on civil airplanes?

a) Left side - green, right side - red, rear aft - white.
b) Left side - red, right side - green, rear aft - white.
c) Left side - white, right side - green, rear aft - red.
278. The type of electric wire terminals used for most aircraft applications, in addition to providing good current carrying capabilities, are designed primarily:

a) to prevent circuit failure due to terminal disconnection.
b) for uncomplicated and rapid circuit connection and disconnection
c) for permanent connection to the circuit.
279. What does a rectifier do?

a) Changes direct current into alternating current.
b) Changes alternating current into direct current.
c) Reduces voltage.
280. Electric circuits are protected from overheating by means of:

a) thermocouples.
b) shunts.
c) fuses.
281. What is the principal advantage of the series wound dc motor?

a) High starting torque.
b) Suitable for constant speed use.
c) Low starting torque.
282. A series wound dc electric motor will normally require:

a) more current at high RPM than at low RPM.
b) approximately the same current throughout its operating range of speed.
c) more current at low RPM than at high RPM.
283. The method most often used in overcoming the effect of armature reaction is through the use of:

a) interpoles.
b) shaded poles.
c) drum wound armatures in combination with a negatively connected series field.
284. Aircraft electrical junction boxes located in a fire zone are usually constructed of:

a) asbestos.
b) cadmium plated steel.
c) stainless steel.
285. The pin section of an AN/MS connector is normally installed on:

a) the power supply side of a circuit.
b) the ground side of a circuit.
c) either side of a circuit (makes no difference).
286. In a generator, what eliminates any possible sparking to the brush guides caused by the movement of the brushes within the holder?

a) The brush pigtail.
b) Brush spring tension.
c) Undercutting the mica on the commutator.
287. A voltage regulator controls generator output by:

a) introducing a resistance in generator-to-battery lead in the event of overload.
b) shorting out field coil in the event of overload.
c) varying current flow to generator field coil.
288. The pole pieces or shoes used in a dc generator are a part of the:

a) armature assembly.
b) field assembly.
c) brush assembly.
289. To test generator or motor armature windings for opens:

a) place armature in a growler and connect a 110V test light on adjacent segments; light should light.
b) check adjacent segments on commutator with an ohmmeter on the high resistance scale.
c) use a 12/24V test light between the armature core segments and the shaft.
290. When approved, splices may be used to repair manufactured harnesses or installed wiring.
The maximum number of splices permitted between any two connectors is:

a) one.
b) two.
c) three.
291. How should the splices be arranged if several are to be located in an electrical wire bundle?

a) Staggered along the length of the bundle.
b) Grouped together to facilitate inspection.
c) Enclosed in a conduit.
292. What is the most accurate type of frequency measuring instrument?

a) Integrated circuit chip having a clock circuit.
b) Electrodynamometers using electromagnetic fields.
c) Electromagnets using one permanent magnet.
293. For general electrical use in aircraft, the acceptable method of attaching a terminal to a wire is by:

a) crimping.
b) soldering.
c) crimping and soldering.
294. For general electrical use in aircraft, the acceptable method of attaching a terminal to a wire is by:

a) crimping.
b) soldering.
c) crimping and soldering.
295. Which of the following factors must be taken into consideration when determining the wire size to use for an aircraft installation?
1. Mechanical strength.
2. Allowable power loss.
3. Ease of installation.
4. Resistance of current return path through the aircraft structure.
5. Permissible voltage drop.
6. Current carrying capability of the conductor.
7. Type of load (continuous or intermittent).

a) 2, 5, 6, 7.
b) 1, 2, 4, 5.
c) 2, 4, 6, 7.
296. The most common method of attaching a pin or socket to an individual wire in an MS electrical connector is by:

a) crimping.
b) soldering.
c) crimping and soldering.
297. Major adjustments on equipment such as regulators, contactors,
and inverters are best accomplished outside the airplane on test benches with necessary instruments and equipment.
Adjustment procedure should be as outlined by:

a) the equipment manufacturer.
b) the FAA.
c) aircraft technical orders.
298. One purpose of a growler test is to determine the presence of:

a) an out of round commutator.
b) a broken field lead.
c) a shorted armature.
299. How can it be determined if a transformer winding has some of its turns shorted together?

a) Measure the input voltage with an ohmmeter.
b) The output voltage will be high.
c) The transformer will get hot in normal operation.
300. An antiskid system is:

a) a hydraulic system.
b) an electrohydraulic system.
c) an electrical system.
301. Antiskid braking systems are generally armed by:

a) a centrifugal switch.
b) a switch in the cockpit.
c) the rotation of the wheels above a certain speed.
302. In an antiskid system, wheel skid is detected by:

a) an electrical sensor.
b) a discriminator.
c) a sudden rise in brake pressure.
303. (1) An antiskid system is designed to apply enough force to operate just below the skid point.
2) A warning lamp lights in the cockpit when the antiskid system is turned off or if there is a system failure.
Regarding the above statements:

a) only No. 1 is true.
b) only No. 2 is true.
c) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
304. The purpose of antiskid generators is to:

a) monitor hydraulic pressure applied to brakes.
b) indicate when a tire skid occurs.
c) measure wheel rotational speed and any speed changes.
305. (Refer to Airframe figure 20.) What will illuminate the amber indicator light?

a) Closing the nosewheel gear full retract switch.
b) Retarding one throttle and closing the left wheel gear locked down switch.
c) Closing the nose, left and right wheel gear full retract switches.
306. The primary purpose of a takeoff warning system is to alert the crew that a monitored flight control is not properly set prior to takeoff.
The system is activated by:

a) an 80 knot airspeed sensor.
b) an ignition system switch not set for takeoff.
c) a thrust lever.
307. (1) A dc selsyn system is a widely used electrical method of indicating a remote mechanical movement or position.
(2) A synchro type indicating system is an electrical system used for transmitting information from one point to another.
Regarding the above statements:

a) only No. 1 is true.
b) only No. 2 is true.
c) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
308. Where is the landing gear safety switch usually located?

a) On the main gear shock strut.
b) On the landing gear drag brace.
c) On the pilot's control pedestal.
309. What landing gear warning device(s) is/are incorporated on retractable landing gear aircraft?

a) A visual indicator showing gear position.
b) A light which comes on when the gear is fully down and locked.
c) A horn or other aural device and a red warning light.
310. The rotor in a magnesyn remote indicating system uses:

a) a permanent magnet.
b) an electromagnet.
c) an electromagnet and a permanent magnet.
311. Microswitches are used primarily as limit switches to:

a) limit generator output.
b) control electrical units automatically.
c) prevent overcharging of a battery.
312. Which repair would require a landing gear retraction test?

a) Landing gear safety switch.
b) Red warning light bulb.
c) Gear downlock microswitch.
313. What is used as a temperature sensing element in an electrically heated windshield?

a) Thermocouple.
b) Thermistor.
c) Thermometer.
314. What method is usually employed to control the temperature of an anti icing system using surface combustion heaters?

a) Thermo cycling switches.
b) Thermostats in the cockpit.
c) Heater fuel shutoff valves.
315. What is the purpose of the oil separator in the pneumatic deicing system?

a) To protect the deicer boots from oil deterioration.
b) To remove oil from air exhausted from the deicer boots.
c) To prevent an accumulation of oil in the vacuum system.
316. Why are the tubes in deicer boots alternately inflated?

a) Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes keeps disturbance of the airflow to a minimum.
b) Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes does not disturb airflow.
c) Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes relieves the load on the air pump.
317. What controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicer boot system?

a) Shuttle valve.
b) Vacuum pump.
c) Distributor valve.
318. Some aircraft are protected against airframe icing by heating the leading edges of the airfoils and intake ducts.
When is this type of anti-ice system usually operated?

a) Continuously while the aircraft is in flight.
b) In symmetric cycles during icing conditions to remove ice as it accumulates.
c) Whenever icing conditions are first encountered or expected to occur.
319. Why should a chemical rain repellant not be used on a dry windshield?

a) It will etch the glass.
b) It will restrict visibility.
c) It will cause glass crazing.
320. What is the principal characteristic of a windshield pneumatic rain removal system?

a) An air blast spreads a liquid rain repellant evenly over the windshield that prevents raindrops from clinging to the glass surface.
b) An air blast forms a barrier that prevents raindrops from striking the windshield surface.
c) A pneumatic rain removal system is simply a mechanical windshield wiper system that is powered by pneumatic system pressure.
321. What is one check for proper operation of a pitot/static tube heater after replacement?

a) Ammeter reading.
b) Voltmeter reading.
c) Continuity check of system.
322. A contaminated carbon monoxide portable test unit would be returned to service by:

a) heating the indicating element to 300 °F to reactivate the chemical.
b) installing a new indicating element.
c) evacuating the indicating element with CO2.
323. What occurs when a visual smoke detector is activated?

a) A warning bell within the indicator alarms automatically.
b) A lamp within the indicator illuminates automatically.
c) The test lamp illuminates and an alarm is provided automatically.
324. Smoke detection instruments are classified by their method of:

a) construction.
b) maintenance.
c) detection.
325. When used in fire detection systems having a single indicator light, thermal switches are wired :

a) parallel with each other and in series with the light.
b) series with each other and the light.
c) series with each other and parallel with the light.
326. Which fire extinguishing agent is considered to be the least toxic?

a) Carbon dioxide.
b) Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301).
c) Bromochloromethane (Halon 1011).
327. The types of fire extinguishing agents for aircraft interior fires are:

a) water, carbon dioxide, dry chemical, and halogenated hydrocarbons.
b) water, dry chemical, methyl bromide, and chlorobromomethane.
c) water, carbon tetrachloride, carbon dioxide, and dry chemical.
328. Maintenance of fire detection systems includes the:

a) repair of damaged sensing elements.
b) removal of excessive loop or element material.
c) replacement of damaged sensing elements.
329. Which of the following are fire precautions which must be observed when working on an oxygen system?
1. Display 'No Smoking' placards.
2. Provide adequate fire fighting equipment.
3. Keep all tools and oxygen servicing equipment free from oil or grease.
4. Avoid checking aircraft radio or electrical systems.

a) 1, 3, and 4.
b) 1, 2, and 4.
c) 1, 2, 3, and 4.
330. The proper fire extinguishing agent to use on an aircraft brake fire is:

a) water.
b) carbon dioxide.
c) dry powder chemical.
331. A fire extinguisher container can be checked to determine its charge by:

a) attaching a remote pressure gauge.
b) weighing the container and its contents.
c) a hydrostatic test.
332. In reference to aircraft fire extinguishing systems,
(1) during removal or installation, the terminals of discharge cartridges should be grounded or shorted.
(2) before connecting cartridge terminals to the electrical system, the system should be checked with a voltmeter to see that no voltage exists at the terminal connections.
Regarding the above statements:

a) only No. 2 is true.
b) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
c) neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
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